Reasoning questions are very important part of bank exams asthey test candidate's decision making, preciseness, analytical ability etc. Reasoning questions are normally considered to be very confusing as the candidates can not easily decide on an answer without taking some time and applying good analytical skills soreasoning should not be attempted first. Candidate should attempt this section after saving some time from Questions of General awareness and General English.
Reasoning questions have large variety and widely classified into verbal and Non-verbal reasoning.
Verbal reasoning includes questions classified as below :-
- Alphabetical and numerical series
- Questions deriving from some given facts and relations
- Questions on Directional analysis
- Coding-decoding on a pattern
- Questions on age calculation
- Questions on Mirror images
- Questions on Human relations
- and More.......
Non-verbal reasoning includes questions on some series of graphical representations. For example, four graphical pictures are shown depending upon some series, the candidate has to decide the next in series by finding out the logic used in creating the series.
Again, practice is the key as it makes you realize the types of questions you're good at and which section needs more attention.
Reasoning and Quantitative Aptitude/Numerical ability are the two time taking sections in any bank exam. The candidate will surely have to do a lot of switching between questions to make sure he/she does not waste too much time on particular question while the relatively easier ones are waiting to be grabbed. This can only Be mastered through right amount of practice.
Directions (1-5) Answer the following questions on the basis of the alphabets given below:
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
1. Which letter the 9th to the right of 15th letter from left?
(a) Y (b) X (c) W (d) T
2. In fi rst and second letter change their positions and so do the third and fourth letter, the fi fth
and sixth letter and so on, which letter will be seventh letter to the right of 11th letter from left?
(a) Q (b) P (c) S (d) R
3. If the fi rst half of the alphabets were written in the reverse order, which will be the 6th letter to
the left of the 10th letter from left
(a) K (b) J (c) D (d) I
4. Three of the following four letter combinations are alike in regard to their positions in the
alphabets and hence from a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) EA (b) TP (c) MJ (d) NJ
5. Three of the following four letter combinations are alike in regard to their positions in the
alphabets and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to this group?
(a) BY (b) EV (c) GT (d) CU
Directions (6-10) In questions, out of the four alternatives, select the one which when substituted
for the question mark “?” maintains the same relationship on both sides of the sign (: :).
6. Himalayan : Range :: Pacifi c : ?
(a) Sea (b) Island (c) River (d) Ocean
7. Bicycle : Mechanical : : Steam engine : ?
(a) Heat (b) Temperature (c) Thermal (d) Celsius
8. Second : Time : : Gram : ?
(a) Length (b) Energy (c) Mass (d) Space
9. Abrupt : Sudden : : Accident : ?
(a) Calamity (b) Safety (c) Mishap (d) Incident
10. USA : West : : India : ?
(a) South (b) North (c) East (d) North West
Directions (11-15) In each of the following questions,
select one of the four alternatives which completes
11. BDGKP – –
(a) VC (b) UZ (c) UB (d) VB
12. ACFHKM – –
(a) OQ (b) PR (c) QS (d) OR
13. XZYUWVRTS – – –
(a) OPQ (b) NOP (c) OQP (d) NPO
14. ZACXWDUF – – – –
(a) TGIR (b) VFHS (c) TGHS (d) VFIR
15. CADGEHKIL – – –
(a) OMP (b) NMP (c) ONM (d) NMO
16. In some code language ‘Tendularkar’ is written as ‘ndetaularkr’. What would be the code for
‘Rashtrapati’ in that language?
(a) sharatrtiap (b) shraartitpa (c) sharatrtipa (d) sharartitap
17. Five girls are sitting in a row. Pratima is on the right of Mona. Nidhi is on the left of Mona but
is on the right of Natasha. Pratima is on the left of Anu. The girl on the extreme left is
(a) Anu. (b) Natasha. (c) Pratima. (d) Nidhi.
18. Two persons starting from the same point walk in opposite directions, each travelling 15 km.
Then one of them turns to his left and walks 15 km, while the other turns to his right and walks
15 km. How far are they from each other now?
(a) 15 km (b) 30 km (c) 45 km (d) 60 km
19. Read the following statements and answer the question at the end.
(a) Kunal can play cricket but not tennis. (b) Rohit can play badminton but not hockey.
(c) Mukesh can play hockey but not cricket. (d) Gaurav can play both cricket and hockey.
If every person can play two games each, who
would be like Gaurav?
(a) Kunal (b) Rohit c) Mukesh (d) None of these
Directions (20-24) In these questions there is a defi nite relationship between the two groups of letters
to the left of the sign (: :). Out of the four responses select one and substitute it for the mark (?) Maintain
the same relationship in two sets of letters on both sides of the sign (: :).
20. JKLM : LJMK : : TUVW : ? (a) UTWN (b) VTWU (c) VUTW (d) VTUW
21. HGIJ: GHHK : : POQR : ? (a) OPPS (b) QPPT (c) OQQS (d) QOOS
22. TSQR : XWUV : : EDBC : : ? (a) HIFG (b) IFGH (c) FGIH (d) IHFG
23. CFGI : RUTX : : KMNO : ? (a) PMNL (b) LNMP (c) LMNP (d) PNML
24. SAFE : TCII : : CLAP : ? (a) DMCR (b) DMET (c) DNES (d) DNDT
Directions (25-29) Given below are some words in Column I and their equivalent codes in Column II.
The letters in the code are not necessarily in the same order as those in the words they stand for. Each letter has only one code. Study the two columns carefully and answer the following questions.
Column I Column II
25. Identify the code for word ‘DARN’. (a) gchz (b) gupc (c) ucpl (d) uchz
26. Identify the code for the word ‘NOISE’. (a) xkgjp (b) ujlzh (c) pluxk (d) ghuxk
27. Identify the code for word ‘ADORN’. (a) uljcp (b) cljpu (c) uhlzk (d) jzlup
28. Identify the code for the word ‘ORDINAL’. (a) khugclj (b) ujghzkx (c) jkhgzuc (d) pgchlju
29. Identify the code for the word ‘SALINE’. (a) zxhpgk (b) pghkux (c) uzghkz (d) xukhgz
Directions (30-34) These questions are based on the information given below: Six persons P, Q, R, S, T, and U were playing a game of cards. P’s father, uncle, and mother were in one group. There were two women playing. S got more points than T but less than U. Q, who is the mother of P, got more points than her husband.The niece of T got lowest points. The father of P got more points than U, but could not win the game.
30. Who won the game? (a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S
31. Who got the lowest points? (a) P (b) Q (c) U (d) S
32. Who is the husband of Q? (a) S (b) R (c) T (d) U
33. Q was one of the ladies. Who was the other lady? (a) P (b) S (c) R (d) T
34. Who stood second in the game? (a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) T
Directions (35-37) In each of the following questions some symbols have been used to denote specifi c relationship. Read these symbols and their relationship carefully before answering the questions.
α means ‘is greater than’
β means ‘is smaller than’
γ means ‘is equal to;
θ means ‘is not equal to’
35. If A α B, D β C and B γ C, then (a) B α C (b) A β B (c) A α C (d) D γ A
36. If D α C, A β B and C α B (a) A γ D (b) B α D (c) A γ C (d) A β D
37. If A θ D, A β C and C γ D (a) D β A (b) A β D (c) A γ D (d) C θ D
Directions (37-42) In each of the following questions some symbols have been used to denote specifi c relationships. Find the relationship which can defi nitely be deduced from the two relationships given at the top.
α stands for ‘greater than’
β stands for ‘less than’
γ stands for ‘not greater than’
$ stands for ‘not less than’
θ stands for ‘equal to’
38. If 2x α 4y and 4x θ 6z, then (a) z θ y (b) z $ y (c) z β y (d) z α y
39. If 2y θ 4z and 3z y x, then (a) y β x (b) x θ y (c) y α x (d) y $ x
40. If 3x θ 4z and y a 4z , then (a) x θ y (b) 3x θ y (c) 3x β y (d) 3x α y
41. If 4x – y and 3y – 2c, then (a) 6x θ 2c (b) 6x β c (c) 4x α c (d) 6x α c
42. If 2y θ z and 2y – 3z, then (a) 3y θ x (b) 3y β x (c) 3y α x (d) 3y $ x
Directions (43-47) These questions are based on information given below. Read the information
carefully and answer the questions.
I. There are seven fl oors in a building occupied by A, B, C, D, E, F and G (not in the same order as given
II. F and G live on the two extremes.
III. B is one fl oor below D but two fl oors above G
IV. C lives between A and F
V. D lives between A and B
VI. E lives one fl oor above G
43. Who lives on the top-most fl oor? (a) F (b) G (c) C (d) D
44. Who lives on the ground fl oor? (a) G (b) D (c) B (d) F
45. Who lives on the fi rst fl oor? (a) G (b) A (c) B (d) E
46. A lives between (a) D and B (b) D and E (c) C and D (d) B and G
47. Who lives below F? (a) C (b) A (c) D (d) B
Directions (48-49) These questions are based on the following statements.
I. P + Q mean P is the mother of Q II. P ÷ Q mean P is the father of Q
III. P – Q mean P is the sister of Q
48. Which of the following represents “M is the daughter of R “?
(a) R ÷ M + N (b) R + N ÷ M (c) R – M ÷ N (d) None of these
49. Which of the following represents “M is the sister of R”?
(a) R ÷ M + N (b) R + N ÷ M (c) R – M – N (d) R – M + N
50. Rama told Manju : This girl is the youngest daughter of the brother-in-law of my friend’s mother. How is the girl related to Rama’s friend? (a) Cousin (b) Daughter (c) Niece (d) Friend
51. In a row of six persons, D and C are immediate neighbours of E. B is a neighbour of A only. A is
fourth from F. Who are on the two end points? (a) F and B (b) B and D (c) C and A (d) F and C
52. B is twice as old as A but twice younger than F. C is half the age of A but is twice older than D. Which two persons form the pair of the oldest and youngest?
(a) F and D (b) B and D (c) C and A (d) F and C
Directions (53-57) In each of the following questions there are four items. You have to strike the odd
53. (a) SouthAmerica (b) SouthAfrica (c) Asia (d) Australia
54. (a) Pacifi c (b) Indian (c) Atlantic (d) Caspian
55. (a) Football (b) Volleyball (c) Basketball (d) Cricket
56. (a) Mother Teresa (b) Rabindranath Tagore (c) Gandhiji (d) Amartya Sen
57. (a) Onion (b) Tomato (c) Potato (d) Garlic.
58. In the following series how many digits are there which have an odd number immediately preceding it and an even number immediately following it:
2 7 2 5 3 4 8 9 7 1 6 5 3 2 9 8 4 3 5 8 7 3 1
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 3
59. If + means – , – means × , × means ÷ and ÷ means +. Which of the following is the value of 14 × 2 + 2 ÷ 3 – 5?
(a) 19 (b) 20 (c) 22 (d) 23
60. If 2 × 9 = 6 and 4 × 6 = 8, then 5 × 6 =? (a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 9 (d) 10
61. If PQ means 45, QR mean 56, QS mean 58, then RPSQ is
(a) 6845 (b) 6485 (c) 5648 (d) 5684
62. In a certain language’ Saye tur Ahea kip’ stands for the statement ‘Hema is very beautiful’, ‘Naye Ahter kip Ane tur’ stands for’ Daughter Neena is very smart’, ‘Din Saye Naye tur Mir’ Stands for ‘Rima is beautiful and smart’, and ‘tylaq deed din Naye tur Saye’ stands for ‘Beauty and Smart are qualities admired’. Which of the following words stands for ‘Hema’?
(a) Saye (b) Ahea (c) Kip (d) Ahter
1. (b) 2 (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6.(d) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (c)
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (d) 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (c) 50. (a)
51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (b) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (a)
61. (c) 62. (a)
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